If you want to read the most recent, official WT version of this event, with all of its omissions,mis-quotes, mis-direction and straw-man arguments, here is the link: https://www.jw.org/en/library/magazines/wp20130901/did-languages-come-from-the-tower-of-babel/.
We all know the story. it basically makes the claim that the Tower of Babel event occurred in 2200 bce. Up until then, there was only 1 language, which the WT claims was Hebrew, form this quote:
'Up until some point after the global Flood, all mankind “continued to be of one language [literally, “lip”] and of one set of words.” (Ge 11:1) The Bible indicates that the language later called Hebrew was that original “one language.” (See HEBREW, II.) As will be shown, this does not mean that all other languages stemmed from and are related to Hebrew but that Hebrew preceded all other languages.'
(https://www.jw.org/en/library/books/Insight-on-the-Scriptures/Language/).
A 5 minute google search - that a child could perform and understand, tells us this:
In 2500 bce, there were already at least 4 major, verified language scripts, Egyptian, Indus, Sumerian and proto-Elamite.
How can WT possibly try to claim everyone in the world spoke hebrew before egyptian?